Free AEMT (Advanced EMT) Practice Test: 25 Questions

1. You arrive at a two-car collision with multiple injured individuals and smoke coming from the vehicles. What should your first steps be?

• A. Begin extrication while your partner calls for backup.
• B. Call the fire department, establish a safety zone, and manage traffic.
• C. Triage the injured and extricate the most critical first.
• D. Inform patients that you must wait for law enforcement to secure the scene.

2. An EMT may be charged with abandonment if they:

• A. Leave a patient in a burning building without attempting rescue.
• B. Cause unintentional injury to a patient while providing care.
• C. Leave a patient without consent and without ensuring care is transferred to equal or higher-level medical personnel.
• D. Leave a patient triaged as "green" to assist one triaged as "red."

3. During a large-scale disaster response, an AEMT is asked to help set up a treatment area. Which of the following is a priority when choosing a location?

• A. Proximity to the incident scene for visibility.
• B. Accessibility for ambulances and proximity to a main road.
• C. Shaded areas to protect from weather.
• D. The highest ground possible to avoid flooding.

4. You respond to a call for a pregnant woman experiencing sudden, severe abdominal pain. Upon arrival, the patient reports no vaginal bleeding but has intense pain on the right side. What is the most likely condition?

• A. Placental abruption
• B. Ectopic pregnancy
• C. Normal labor pain
• D. Urinary tract infection

5. You are dispatched to the home of a woman in labor. Upon examination, you notice the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. What is the correct course of action?

• A. Instruct the woman to push hard to speed up the delivery.
• B. Gently push the cord back into the vagina.
• C. Position the woman with her buttocks higher than her head and transport immediately.
• D. Cut the cord and prepare for delivery.

6. You arrive on scene to find a female patient experiencing contractions every 10-12 minutes. Upon visual inspection, there is no visible crowning. In which stage of labor is this patient?

• A. 1st stage of labor
• B. 2nd stage of labor
• C. 3rd stage of labor
• D. 4th stage of labor

7. A call comes in for a woman in her third trimester complaining of constant severe back pain and feeling faint. What should you suspect?

• A. Kidney infection
• B. Labor
• C. Placental abruption
• D. Round ligament pain

8. You are called to assist a woman who is in active labor. She has a history of rapid labors, and her contractions are now 2-3 minutes apart. Upon inspection, you see the baby's head crowning. What is your immediate action?

• A. Transport her to the hospital immediately
• B. Prepare for immediate delivery on scene
• C. Apply pressure to the baby’s head to delay delivery
• D. Call for a higher level of medical support and wait

9. You are called to a home where a woman has just delivered her baby. She is continuing to bleed heavily and appears pale and sweaty. What is your primary concern?

• A. Retained placenta
• B. Uterine atony
• C. Placental abruption
• D. Perineal tear

10. A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation complains of severe lower back pain, contractions, and a feeling of pressure. What should you suspect?

• A. Preterm labor
• B. Braxton Hicks contractions
• C. Urinary tract infection
• D. Round ligament pain

11. A patient has a deep laceration on his forearm with bright red, spurting blood. What type of bleeding is this, and how should you manage it?

• A. Capillary bleeding, apply a bandage
• B. Venous bleeding, apply a tourniquet
• C. Arterial bleeding, apply direct pressure
• D. Internal bleeding, provide oxygen

12. You are treating a patient with a suspected pelvic fracture. What is the best way to immobilize the pelvis?

• A. Apply a traction splint
• B. Place a folded blanket or sheet between the legs and tie the knees together
• C. Use a cervical collar
• D. Bind the pelvis with a sheet or pelvic binder

13. What is the most appropriate treatment for a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax?

• A. High-flow oxygen and rapid transport.
• B. Needle decompression on the affected side.
• C. Application of a chest seal.
• D. Positive pressure ventilation.

14. A patient has a flail chest following a motor vehicle collision. What is the most effective initial treatment?

• A. Apply a bulky dressing.
• B. Provide positive pressure ventilations.
• C. Stabilize the chest with a bandage.
• D. Administer high-flow oxygen and prepare for rapid transport.

15. You respond to a call where a construction worker has cut his arm with a circular saw. His coworker reports that he has lost about 400 mL of blood. As an AEMT, you know that a person can lose approximately _________ of blood before they are in significant danger of hypovolemic shock.

• A. 200 mL
• B. 450 mL
• C. 800 mL
• D. 1000 mL

16. What does the letter P represent in the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS?

• A. Punctures
• B. Pupillary size
• C. Pneumothorax signs
• D. Pulse rate

17. You arrive on scene to find a patient experiencing severe chest pain and showing signs of shock. His blood pressure is 90/50. Medical control orders you to administer aspirin and nitroglycerin. What should be your first response?

• A. Administer both medications as directed without hesitation.
• B. Administer aspirin and discuss the risks of nitroglycerin with medical control due to the patient's low blood pressure.
• C. Refuse to administer nitroglycerin and only give aspirin.
• D. Request a different directive from medical control because of the contraindication.

18. You find a patient with signs of a possible transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which time frame is typically observed for symptoms to resolve in a TIA?

• A. 10 minutes
• B. 30-60 minutes
• C. 1-2 days
• D. A week

19. During an emergency call for a patient with chest pain, the patient's vitals are pulse 118, respirations 20, and BP 130/85. What is the first intervention?

• A. Administer high-flow oxygen.
• B. Prepare for immediate transport.
• C. Perform a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.

20. What are the three basic causes of shock that an AEMT must be able to identify and manage?

• A. Cardiogenic, hypovolemic, and obstructive
• B. Infectious, cardiogenic, and neurogenic
• C. Hypovolemic, neurogenic, and anaphylactic
• D. Respiratory, cardiogenic, and septic

21. How should you proceed when suctioning a newborn who has just been delivered and appears to have excessive mucous?

• A. Suction the nose, then the mouth.
• B. Suction the mouth first, then the nose.
• C. Suction both the mouth and nose simultaneously.
• D. Avoid suctioning unless the baby is in distress.

22. A patient exhibits inspiratory stridor after a bee sting to the neck. What is likely occurring?

• A. Cardiac arrhythmia.
• B. Anaphylactic reaction leading to upper airway swelling.
• C. Bronchial constriction.
• D. Hyperventilation syndrome.

23. Observing a child who is breathing 30 breaths per minute, you would consider this respiratory rate as:

• A. Normal.
• B. Tachypneic.
• C. Bradypneic.
• D. Hypoxic.

24. In a patient with an upper airway obstruction, which sound indicates severe airway compromise?

• A. Snoring respirations.
• B. Gurgling.
• C. High-pitched wheezing on inhalation.
• D. Quiet, minimal air movement.

25. What is the essential first step before inserting an oral airway in an unresponsive adult patient?

• A. Assess the gag reflex.
• B. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
• C. Hyperextend the neck to facilitate insertion.
• D. Ensure the airway is lubricated.

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26. You received a critical medication shipment from a healthcare courier while treating a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction. What should you do first?

• A. Verify the medication and expiration date before administration
• B. Immediately administer the medication without checking
• C. Ask the healthcare courier for administration instructions
• D. Refuse the delivery and use available alternatives

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About the NREMT AEMT Exam

The NREMT AEMT cognitive exam uses a computer adaptive testing (CAT) format, meaning the difficulty of questions adjusts based on your answers. The exam includes up to 135 questions and must be completed within a 3-hour time limit. The AEMT passing score is 950 out of 1,500. Because the test is adaptive, some candidates may finish earlier if the system determines competency before reaching the maximum number of questions.

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Registration and Attempts

Candidates must register through nremt.org after completing a state-approved AEMT training program and receiving authorization to test. Candidates are allowed up to six attempts, but additional education is required after three failed attempts.

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What to Bring on Test Day?

Bring a valid government-issued photo ID and your exam confirmation details. Personal items such as phones and notes are not allowed in the testing room. Before scheduling your exam, take an AEMT practice test to assess your readiness and improve your chances of passing on the first attempt.

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Continue Your NREMT Journey

If you’re preparing for multiple NREMT exams, the NREMT offers other tests for different levels of emergency medical responders, including EMR. If you are preparing for the NREMT exam, try our EMR Practice Test to help you succeed.

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